Great job! The answers were C and E although Some answered C and A and others C and C. If you agree that Parsonage Turner syndrome is idiopathic then technically all of those options are correct. The history of injury could mean stretch nuerapraxia which would equal C & C.
Thanks to Drs Rivero, Golsaz, Aguiar, Umans, Mink, Gottlieb, Le Hir, Declercq, Scholz, Crnkovich, Dish, Muir, and Tang!
> On Apr 15, 2021, at 13:59, Phillip Tirman MD <ptirmanmd@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> Increasing pain and weakness. R/O rotator cuff tear.
>
>
> Edema in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with a touch of fatty atrophy especially of the infraspinatus. No tendon tear although arguably there could be a focal insertional strain. Other muscles look normal. What do the findings make you think of?
>
> A. Infection
> B. Sarcoma
> C. Acute/subacute denervation
> D. Acute alcohol intoxication while wearing a Beastie Boys T-shirt resulting in rhabdomyolysis.
> E. None of the above
>
> What do you think is the most likely diagnosis?
>
> A. Parsonage Turner Syndrome
> B. Stretch neurapraxia of the axillary nerve
> C. Stretch neurapraxia of the suprascapular nerve.
> D. Good ole muscle strains.
> E. A or C.
>
>
> Please don’t reply all, feel free to reply to me if you want. I’ll tally up the responses.
>
> This is purely meant for fun and to be a learning exercise if not familiar with these entities.
>
> Happy Thursday everyone (Happy Friday for our Asian and Australian OCADers)!
>
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>
> —
> Phillip Tirman MD
> Renaissance Imaging Center Westlake Village
> Two Dole Drive
> Westlake Village, CA 91362
> Tel: 818-575-8066
