This is a woman….and oddly of the same age as one of the reported cases.
My questions are:
1. Is this a diagnosis of exclusion? Should I recommend CT, MRI, both?
2. Are the features so typical that I report this as Intramedullary
Osteosclerosis and recommend no follow up imaging?
3. Directed at the experts on this entity (IMOS)….why is it called
“intramedullary” when in most of the illustrated cases it actually looks
like cortical hyperostosis (see each of the attached reported cases in the
tibia)?