I’ve received three responses to this case- Thank you! All stated that the
dx is PVNS and that it may undergo spontaneous regression, presumably due
to resolution of hemorrhage or inflammation.
Thanks again!
Mai
Dear OCADERs,
I need help on this case of a 50 YO male who had a knee MRI last year that
was diagnosed as PVNS (first slide, sorry I do not have a T 1).
He had nothing done, and came back yesterday for a follow-up which showed
that the soft tissue lesion is smaller (second slide). My question is,
could PVNS spontaneously regress (depending on the amount of hemorrhage)?
Or shall I reconsider another Dx?
Thank you,