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She completed a course of Levofloxacin (fluoroquinolone) antibiotics 1 month ago The association of fluoroquinolone use and tendon rupture, especially Achilles rupture is well established….but I always find it shocking Here is a nice open access case report on the topic

Help with case: HPI: 41M with h/o GFAP-mediated encephalomyelitis that was thought to be related to autoimmune disorder this past summer treated with solumedrol. He still has residual paralysis in his lower extremities. He was admitted 2 days ago for MSSA urosepsis and decubitus ulcer treated with vancomycin and cefazolin. Kidney function good. Any thoughts

] It’s in the neighborhood….but more volar radial than the 1st extensor compartmentI can’t imagine that this would present with a positive Finkelstein Test I’ve never seen this sort of impingement on the FCR…seems surprising since trapezioscaphoid DJD is so common Hilary

All I received two or three responses to the last case I sent: knee with MRI and x-ray. All suggested old bone infarcts or vascular channels. Orthopod was going to do a repeat MRI in 3-6 months. New incidentaloma: 80 yr old with elbow pain. Has olecranon bursitis and orthopedist noticed the lesion in the

These axial images are distal to proximal These Cor images demonstrate a complete tear of the pinky MCP radial collateral ligament I wonder if this is a Stener Like lesion…which has been reported with the proximal stump of the ligament extending superficial to the sagittal band This looks alot like a case illustrated in Radsource

This CAM bump is a bit low….I think it looks exactly like what was reported as a "distal CAM" in the context of sub-spine impingement (see the article by Dr. Samim…Fig. 2 is attached) Our Sag images are fat sat, but the AIIS doesn’t seem large or low lying…we have Cor T1 images (not shown)

Hi all Another one for the paeds experts. Is this normal for haemolytic anaemia/transfusions or is there infection or leukaemia? Thanks in advance. Graeme Spine.pdf

I have already spent a ridiculous amount of time searching references and online images to no avail…even pried an ancient volume of Caffey’s off my shelf…which provided some exercise…in futility….The history is Metatarsus Adductus…which we see, but please clarify if the ossification pattern at the 2nd metatarsal bases is normal (to quote my beloved teacher

I received a handful of comments: I would say the oedema highlights fascial layers you don’t usually see, rather than a co-existent MCL injury, which is less likely. I would call the MCL intact with just minor surrounding edema I would not call a delamination, just a sprain of the MCL. I wonder if the