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20 year old patient imaged for chronic instability. Small soft-tissue mass at the proximal LBT in its intra-articular segment. Makes me think of GCT or maybe fibroma. Probably asymptomatic. What do you think? Cheers, Andrei

Would you please help me with an opinion? 66 F (nun), no trauma, Rheumatoid arthritis stage IV since 2018, chronic pain, inflammatory blood test positive, but not septic. A doctor sticked a niddle months ago in the joint to deliver some corticosteroids for the pain. I reported severe degeneration secondary to inflammation, effusion, erosions, synovitis.

Hi everyone 50 y.o. male with persistent lateral pain 6 months after trauma. I’m not sure about the distal peronaeus longus tendon: are those intratendinous split lesions or just normal appearance? My "sentiment" is that it’s more or less normal, or age appropiate. I don’t want to overdiagnose this. There’s also a visible sprain of

Anyone with any good insights into the signal changes in the femoral epiphyses of this 14 yo pediatric pt? Sort of serpiginous low t1/t2 signal outline with central fatty marrow and no double line sign. MR was for right hip pain. I was thinking maybe reparative phase of Legg calve perthes? Thanks in advance. -micah

Thanks to the many people who offered differential diagnosis possibilities. I reported that the DDx includes benign and malignant lesions, despite the chronic / indolent history. I reported that the DDX included but was not limited to IPEH, dematofibrosarcoma protruberans, Squamous Cell Ca related to chronic scar and pilomatricoma…. additional suggestions included benign vascular malformation,

I received several comments, thank you The consensus is that this looks aggressive and high grade surface osteosarcoma was specifically mentioned by a few We will keep BPOP in the ddx….and someone suggested calcified leiomyoma as a very unlikely possibility HADD was suggested, but this certainly is not HADD If, by some miracle, we get

I am trying to understand the marrow signal alteration that is more apparent on PDFS than PD images, and really not visible on T1W…predominantly within the posterior femoral condyles in a 62F who fell 2.5 months ago.She has a previously undiagnosed healing patellar fracture and a known ipsilateral acetabular fracture (not shown) Is this a