OCAD

Hello, I would appreciate your help with a wrist MRI… Thank you very much 💐

45M with no history other than "non-resolving posterolateral proximal calf lump 1-2 months"There is inhomogeneous loss of fatsat in the area of concern without a mass or real enhancement that I can see in that area. I don’t understand what is going on in the popliteus muscle. Which looks normal on T1W and T2FatSat, but

large B-cell lymphoma. Previous radiotherapy and chemotherapy. 70F,

Per Don Resnick: Typical causes for this compartment involvement are osteoarthrosis, inflammatory osteoarthritis, gout, and scleroderma. My opinion in this case is posttraumatic osteoarthrosis as there is chronic periosteal reaction along the medial aspect of the thumb metacarpal. Superimposed crystal deposition if the patient has gout is a possibility. Not typical of scleroderma although this

Beautiful case, Hilary! I have seen 2 cases that actually look very much like yours. We started at the wrong end with MR (and contrast) before we did the x-ray and CT, and were initially quite confused about this woman in her 70s who could not lift her arm at all. CT particularly nice showed

The lesion is certainly benign, so the DDx is academic…I presume it will be excised and will try to get follow up. Don Resnick and Darra Murphy both suggested the possibility of Melorheostosis….I was not aware that it could look like this when it affects the scapula; apparently it can. Though you would expect additional

Dear Hilary, I have seen this outcome on several occasions when the patient is not operated whatever the reason. To some extent, when acute and intense bone resorption develops in association with an infection, some unmineralized segment of bone may persist and may remineralized later with successful treatment. However, it is not because the radiological

She has negative ulnar variance and an absent dorsal ulnar groove with medial dislocation of the ECU, which is otherwise normalThe remainder of the wrist MRI is normal. Our reports are legal documents and I have to assume this is a personal injury case Is this actually pathologic with negative ulnar variance? Is the ECU