OCAD

Dear friends I received several answers, pointing out that the dorsal configuration of a MN is due to the location distal to the intermetatarsal ligament, obviously also dependent on the position of the joint/toe, and prone/supine. Thank you all, it makes my life both easier and more difficult 😀 Here are some of the responses: […]

I received several, very helpful comments from Dr. Eugene Lim:1) Uric acid saturation point is 6.8 mg% at core body temperature, so 8 mg% is definitely high. When measured during an acute gout attack, sUA can be normal or even low, due to the uricosuric effect of stress cortisol produced. The sUA is therefore best

I have no clinical information other than Right hip pain There is obvious asymmetric enlargement of the Right AIIS which is relatively low lying Clearly the remodeling of the AIIS is chronic, presumably the result of previous avulsive stress. I see the intratendinous calcification at the origin of the rectus femoris….it looks too smooth to

Another quick follow-up on this case. I received several responses since my last email stating that they too have never seen such dense calcifcations/ossifications with gout, and especially atypical given the absence or paucity of erosions. However, I did aspirate one of the patient’s MTP joints and the aspirate was positive for monosodium urate. Strange

M 36 years old, knee sprain 30 days ago. Suspected lateral meniscus injury, which is normal. Traumatic injury to the proximal tibiofibular joint. Avulsive rupture of the anterior proximal tibiofibular ligament (ATFL) and the anterior arm of the biceps tendon (ABT) at their tibial insertions. Extensive tibial bone edema. I decided to add a CT

Hi again! I received several good responses! Thank you for supporting the notion about HADD, and actually the patient is better, not entirely, but much better. From the responses: I think the standard time course is days to 4 weeks….but it can last longer.How did her symptoms change in the 4 weeks? I believe it’s

fat sat not good- see subq fat non displaced fx have less edema Avnnesh I think absence of bone marrow edema is not reliable in this case – this is acute avulsion fracture, without impression, also STIR is not very sensitive in older patients with osteopenia (link attached). https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7964447/ Natalia Quite common to have little

I received a few comments….with a range of opinions….am still dragging my feet on the report….. Phil Tirman said:I think an extra-articular pillar coalition. Ask James Linklater. Looks like it on the second sag and drunken waiter sign on oblique radiograph. James Linklater said: The ossicles seem too proximal for a typical accessory navicular. Do