hilary.umans

Several questions. Is it even possible to evaluate an Os Trigonum in an 8 year old? There is tremendous Posterior subtalar effusion…I cannot see the cause. I don’t see distention of the FHL tendon sheath, a low lying FHL muscle belly or thickening of the retrotalar pulley. Is this posterior ankle impingement? [image: 1.jpg] [image: […]

[image: Slide1.jpeg] us02web.zoom.us/j/9556225354?pwd=NEs0ZHVXamtKMUxxWCtkNThGY2pvdz09

[image: 13M consult.jpg] The tech scanned the wrong leg…this leg used to be symptomatic–he is going to return for the right leg, which is currently symptomatic. But, there is intracortical bright T2 signal and both periosteal and endosteal edema in both the tibia and fibula, with no marrow infiltration. [image: 13M consult (1).jpg] [image: 13M

[image: Pitcher suspect physitis 17M.jpg] There is marrow edema along the posterior humeral head, but it is not centered along the physis, which is starting to fuse. Note that there is adaptive remodeling of the posterosuperior glenoid rim and there is subtle increased signal undercutting the base of the posterosuperior labrum [image: Pitcher suspect physitis

Now I really need your help! Got follow up MRI. Not elastofibroma, as I suspected…but not sure what is going on. There is enhancement superficial to the rib which is only clearly visible in the Cor…with a corresponding lump that looks like muscle. When we imaged (and I palpated) the other side in the same

She is hysterical. Noticed by a masseuse incidentally the other day. This is a painless, solid avasular mass with mixed echogenic and hypoechoic areas superficial to the posterolateral 9th or 10th rib (I think). It is superficial to the rib and deep to muscle (latissimus dorsi, I think). It is only visible when she raises

I have not shown the scarred ATFL and longitudinal split tear of the peroneus brevis; they relate to the patient’s pain but are not interesting. There is medial pathology which, according to the referrer and patient, is asymptomatic. [image: axial.jpeg] I assumed there would be medial symptoms because there is moderate FHL tenosynovitis (there is

[image: MRI_1.jpg] [image: MRI_2.jpg] [image: MRI_3.jpg] [image: MRI_4.jpg] The Obl Cor images are anterior to posterior. Ax image shows the subchondral BME-like signal surrounds the mid to posterior inferior Rt SI joint. I don’t show it, but there is very ???? BME in a similar distribution on the left. Is this posterior distribution consistent with

This 63F was referred by a podiatrist who reported pain on ambulation (don’t know how long), and was looking for MT stress fracture or Morton Neuroma. There is subchondral fracture of the 3rd MT head with stress related marrow and periosteal edema, but no articular flattening. There is a 3rd webspace neuroma (3mm transverse) with