45F Knee pain 7 weeks post MVA, MRI


There is a tear at the femoral origin of the ACL which I believe is full thickness, indicated by white arrows

In the Cor it’s more difficult to tell if it’s full or partial thickness, I think

I find that this additional PDFS along the long axis of the ACL is done as a matter of routine at several of our sites regardless of history, though I don’t know if it was done electively in this case (the prescription did not specify suspected ACL tear)

I wonder if people are still using this Obl ACL series
I have rarely found it to be helpful when the routine scan planes and sequences are not.
In this instance, I see the same tear to less advantage in the Obl series.

She is 45 and the torn ligament is pretty much anatomically aligned.
Can I presume this will be treated conservatively?
There is no meniscal tear, osteochondral lesion or other ligament injury that I can see.
I know that primary ACL repair is controversial, but older patients generally do well, I wonder whether it would be a consideration in this case.

Curious what you think.

Hilary

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