fs T1” as would have been correct. There was no i.v. contrast. This is an
MR arthrogram.
Andrei
On Fri, 2 Sept 2022 at 15:20, Andrei Dumitrescu <xisquare@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> Friday afternoon….. always the best time for tricky cases 😅
>
> 47 year old man with chronic pain at the left shoulder, no definite
> history of distinct trauma, competitive sports or occupational stress.
>
> There is what looks like prominent OA with bone marrow edema at the AC
> joint, a small slap tear, and not much else in the way of pathologic
> findings.
> However considering the patient’s age and the lack of marked degeneration
> elsewhere, I’m wondering if the AC joint changes could be something else,
> namely inflammatory arthritis, or that (to me) mysterious entity,
> atraumatic osteolysis of the distal clavicle (AODC), possibly induced by
> some not reported repetitive stress (which I guess can also lead to early
> OA….). What is your impression? Where do you draw the line?
>
> Cheers,
> Andrei
>
>
>
>
>
