There is articular and bursal fraying with intrasubstance bright PDFS signal proximal to the insertion of the mid-posterior supraspinatus tendon
Contrast is imbibed into the tendon over the same segment, but does not extend into the bursa
There is a chronic superior labral tear
Same non insertional changes in the mid-posterior supraspinatus tendon
There’s also diffuse tear at the base of the anterior labrum with cartilage thinning of the anteroinferior glenoid
Would you report this as non-insertional high grade partial tear?
Tendinosis?
Tendinosis with interstitial tearing?
I’m curious what a surgeon would think about this
Hilary
