Presents fairly acutely following inversion injury.
Low ankle ligament injuries.
The FDL is flattened and translated anteriorly and medially with respect to
the PTT. The tendons are otherwise normal in appearance. I don’t see a
retinacular injury
I have not seen this before…desultory dr google search has failed me. My
local guru has never seen it before.
Any thoughts on what’s going on and the significance?
1. It’s been suggested we should scan his other side, see if it’s the
same/”just the way he is”
2. ?some analogue of retromalleolar intrasheath subluxation of the peroneal
tendons?
Thanks
Rob Nairn
Perth, Western Australia
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Not too much in the way of responses – I guess I can assume people are in
the same boat as me and haven’t seen this before.
Dr Umans suggested ultrasounding the medial tendons and thought perhaps
there was a retinacular injury/stripping and subluxation of the FDL tendon,
with lack of oedema suggesting chronicity. Correctly pointed out the acute
deltoid injury which I neglected to illustrate.
Yes, the kid does have medial pain.
Dr Chhabra also thought this was an acquired lesion rather than
developmental.
I asked the orthopod if he wouldn’t mind ordering a scan of the other side
but I won’t be holding my breath.
cheers Rob
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